HPE Aruba Networking Certified Professional - Campus Access (ACP-CA) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which statement about redistribution of connected routes on Aruba OS CX is true?
• Which ClearPass component supports deploying client certificates to corporate-managed devices during onboarding?
• In the Aruba CX 6300 port-access example, which interface is configured for the port-access commands?
• In an Aruba CX VSX setup, which component is used to inform the ISL configuration based on MAC addresses?
• What does MPSK stand for in Aruba wireless configurations?
• Which line assigns an IP address to the VLAN 20 interface in the sample?
• How can you onboard a new UXI device when the sensor has no cellular connection?
• To add a third member JL726A to an Aruba CX VSF stack, which command sequence on the existing switch correctly joins the new member?
• With Aruba CX 6200 switches, which command sequence protects client ports from forming layer-2 loops when uplinks are configured on 1/1/25 and 1/1/26?
• To fix a WPA3-OWE SSID issue when expanding to the 6 GHz band, which SSID setting should be used?
• Which two solutions address the requirements for an IoT wireless authentication solution that requires encrypted traffic, unique per-device passphrases, and fingerprint-based role-based access?
• Which AP mode sends captured RF data to Aruba Central for waterfall plots?
• Which encapsulation is used by EVPN-VXLAN overlays?
• What is the primary benefit of VSX clustering when used with Aruba CX switches?
• In the described remote-office network, which VLAN ID is designated for management traffic?
• Which device family is used in the wireless client deployment described (for the switches paired with the APs)?
• What is AP2's antenna cable loss?
• In an ArubaOS 10 architecture with an AP and a gateway, what happens when the WLAN is configured with OWE?
• Which line assigns the IP address to VLAN 40's SVI in the sample?
• What does the line 'interface vlan 20' indicate in the sample configuration?
• What is a primary Active Gateway feature unique to Aruba CX VSX configuration?
• In Aruba CX VSX configuration, which statement about VRRP and Active Gateway on a VLAN is true?
• In a high-density network design, which technology best minimizes contention overhead by dedicating subcarriers to clients?
• What is the default value for config-revision on core devices used in this environment?
• What is the calculated EIRP for AP1 given Ptx 16 dBm, antenna gain 8 dBi, and 4 dB cable loss?
• Which choice lists the correct order for the firewall role derivation steps in the given flow?
• Which standard supported by some Aruba APs enables accurate location of wireless client devices within a few meters?
• What is the purpose of Round Trip Time measurements in 802.11mc technology?
• During initial VSX configuration, how is the system MAC determined?
• Which stacking technology supports individual ISL links up to 50G?
• Which technology on a CX 6200 helps keep a legacy layer-2 application communicating across layer-3 sites?
• Which 802.11 standard is commonly associated with fast roaming and handoff between access points?
• In a VSX environment, what is the purpose of the command vsx-sync dhcp-relay?
• Which LLDP-MED feature allows APs to request power as needed from PoE-enabled switch ports?
• Which line assigns an IP address to the VLAN 30 interface in the sample?
• What is AP1's radio output power?
• Which NetConductor component defines user and device groups and creates the associated traffic routing and access enforcement rules for the physical network?
• Which NetConductor component enables frictionless onboarding of end users and client devices either through MAC address-based authentication or integrations with cloud identity stores?
• You need an Aruba CX solution that will warn the helpdesk when devices behind unmanaged switches cause outages on edge ports. Which configuration option is correct?
• To address unencrypted tunnels between CX switches and Aruba Gateways after a security audit, which action must be performed?
• In a VSX deployment, what does the term Active gateway refer to?
• What is the subnet mask used for the IPv4 address configured on the SVI in the example?
• What is the IP address of the DHCP server in the scenario?
• during ZTP a gateway was misconfigured causing internet access issues. What action should the technician take to start the ZTP process correctly?
• What is the calculated EIRP for AP2 given Ptx 13 dBm, antenna gain 12 dBi, and 3 dB cable loss?
• With Aruba CX 6300 VSF, how would you create a new OSPF configuration for a separate routing table when the layer-2 VLAN already exists?
• In the described deployment, which subnet is used for switch management?
• With 200 AP-515 and 75 AP-565 APs deployed and 802.1X authentication in use, which feature should be enabled to ensure the best roaming experience for Wi-Fi calling?
• With Aruba CX 6300, how do you configure IP address 10.10.10.1 for interface 1/1/1 in default state?
• In Policy Based Routing, which element defines the action that selects a next hop for matched traffic?
• Which NetConductor component simplifies the creation of overlays using an intuitive graphical user interface and automatic generation of configuration instructions that are pushed to switches and gateways?
• Describe the difference between Class of Service (CoS) and Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
• Using Aruba best practice what should be enabled for visitor networks where encryption is needed but authentication is not required?
• How is Multicast Transmission Optimization implemented in an Aruba wireless network?
• Which line assigns the IP address to VLAN 30's SVI in the sample?
• Which command should the administrator use to examine information on which role the guest user has been assigned?
• In the firewall role derivation flow, which step comes last?
• Which of the following is a typical step in configuring DHCP Snooping to prevent rogue servers, as shown in example configurations?
• To add a third member JL726A to an Aruba CX 6200F VSF stack, which command sequence correctly joins the new member to the existing stack?
• One advantage of using OCSP vs CRLs for certificate validation?
• In the Aruba CX 6300 VSF stack sample, which VLANs are configured?
• In AOS10 Tunneled mode, which component handles IPSec Phase 1 negotiation on the Access Point side?
• Which statement is true about 802.11k?
• Which VLANs are allowed on the trunk in the correct port-access configuration for the APs?
• What is the best practice for handling voice traffic with dynamic segmentation on AOS-CX switches?
• Which technology allows VLAN information to be dynamically added to a trunk?
• Which sequence correctly lists the firewall role derivation flow in the correct order?
• What is AP2's antenna gain?
• Which command list satisfies configuring an SVI on an Aruba CX switch with VLAN 25, IPv4 address 10.105.43.1/24, IPv6 address fd00:5708::f02d:4df6/64, and VRF eng, using the least number of commands?
• A wireless deployment uses cloud-hosted RADIUS and the security team wants to protect RADIUS traffic between APs and the RADIUS server. Which configuration is appropriate?
• To align with Aruba best practices for a standardized network design in Aruba Central, which approach should be used?
• On an Aruba CX 6000 switch, when a client port detects a loop and the do-not-disable parameter is used, what is the immediate consequence?
• To automatically resume the port operational state after a loop on a client port is cleared on Aruba CX 6100 48G, which command enables the re-enable timer for the relevant port range?
• Which configuration correctly enforces one VoIP phone and one device on Aruba CX 6300?
• Given AP1 transmits at 20 dBm, antenna gain of 7 dBi, and a 3 dB cable loss, what is the calculated EIRP?
• To enable a VLAN on a LAG-based inter-switch link named LAG256, which command correctly allows VLAN 100?
• In the WPA 4-Way Handshake, which action occurs after the PMK is proven?
• Using AP2 specifications, what is the calculated EIRP?
• In port-access configuration for AP onboarding, which object defines the device-specific settings for APs?
• To meet the requirement of allowing ping from the IT management VLAN to the user VLAN while denying ping from the user VLAN to the IT management VLAN on Aruba CX 6300s, which ACL approach is correct?
• Which feature allows a device to remain operational when the remote authentication server is unreachable?
• Where do servers typically attach in a VSX deployment at the Access-Aggregation layer?
• What is the first-hop protocol feature recommended for a VSX L3 gateway in Aruba CX configurations?
• Which feature is best to drop excessive broadcast traffic on an ingress port or ArubaOS-CX switch?
• In AOS10 Tunneled mode, which component provides RADIUS proxy functionality?
• Which default management role should have been assigned for a user who needed firmware upgrades and a privilege level of 15?
• Which line defines the SVI for VLAN 20 in the sample?
• Which IEEE 802.11 amendment defines mechanisms for APs and clients to dynamically measure available radio resources?
• What is the antenna cable loss for AP1?
• With Aruba Cloud Guest, visitors report the captive portal keeps appearing after devices sleep. Which solution should be enabled to address this?
• When the primary VSX node is replaced and the system MAC is replaced, which description applies to VSX MAC handling?
• Which statement about redistribution of static routes with a route-map named 'connected-routes' is true in Aruba OS CX?
• Which IP networking term describes traffic sent to a device on a remote network identified by a specific IP address?
• What term describes multiple virtual MAC addresses used for load sharing in a VSX environment?
• Which command sequence correctly enables DHCP snooping on a switch and configures VLANs and interface trust to prevent rogue DHCP servers from affecting the network?
• When configuring an Aruba CX VSX Inter-Switch Link Protocol, what is the default Hello interval?
• In an environment with IP cameras and headless scanners that do not support 802.1X, how can MPSK help secure these devices?
• What is the primary benefit of BSS coloring?
• In an Aruba CX VSX pair, which information does the Inter-Switch Link protocol configuration use?
• In a remote-office rollout with VLANs 100 (mgmt), 200 (clients), and 300 (guests), which port-access configuration correctly enables AP onboarding?
• A company deployed 200 AP-635 APs, but the network isn’t working as expected. What is the correct action to fix the issue?
• A customer wants wired authentication across CX switches and needs to authenticate a single computer connected through a VoIP phone. Which feature should be enabled?
• Between AP1 and AP2, which access point yields the higher EIRP based on the given values?
• When deploying a bonded 40 MHz wide channel, what is the approximate difference in the noise floor perceived by a client compared to an unbonded 20 MHz channel?
• Which component is used to group APs for matching by system description in IAP onboarding?
• Which statement correctly describes the EIRP calculation formula?
• Which statement best describes the VLAN creation line in the Aruba CX sample?
• What is a feasible option to protect PAPI traffic between AOS-CX switches and the gateway running AOStO?
• Which MSTP-related setting must be identically configured with MSTP to load-balance VLANs on Access-1 switches?
• What is an OSPF transit network?
• What enables plug-and-play provisioning of Aruba access points in a client network?
• Which statement best describes QoS (Quality of Service)?
• Which default AOS-CX user role provides View switch configuration and REST API PUT/POST access?
• How many VMAC addresses are supported for IPv4 and IPv6 stacks simultaneously in Aruba CX VSX?
• Using AP1 specifications, what is the calculated EIRP?
• Weak Wi‑Fi coverage in one area, with better signal across the hall, is most likely caused by what?
• For Aruba CX 6400 switches, what does virtual output queuing (VOQ) implement that differs from most typical campus switches?
• A customer wants to deploy a Gateway and take advantage of all the SD-WAN features. Which ArubaOS 10 persona option should be selected?
• In the firewall role derivation flow, which step comes immediately after 'User derived role'?
• What should you implement to ensure PoE devices receive their correct power definitions when 802.1X is used on edge ports?
• Which stacking technology supports individual ISL links up to 400G?
• Which component is used by the Aruba Network Analytics Engine (NAE)?
• In a VLAN environment, what is the function of the SVI?
• For headless IoT devices that do not support 802.1x, which approach is recommended?
• What is the correct method to allow VLAN 100 on a VSX pair inter-switch-link 256 for port 1/45 and 2/45?
• Which option best describes Aruba best practices for Central design when you need GUI configuration for gateways and APs but template configuration for switches?
• By default, Best Effort has higher priority than which traffic type?
• When configuring UBT on a switch, what happens if a gateway role is not specified?
• Which ports are configured as uplinks on the Aruba CX 6100 48G switch in the described setup?
• In EVPN-VXLAN, which overlay is described by the term Distributed Overlay?
• To prevent traffic drop after the aggregation layer comes online, which linkup delay timer configuration is recommended?
• The property redistributes connected routes on Aruba OS CX. Which of the following statements about redistribute connected is true?
• What is the most likely cause of wired guest disconnect CoA not being applied when ClearPass reports a disconnect, given the following configuration and behavior?
• BSS coloring is applied to which element to help reduce interference?
• Which feature supported by SNMPv3 provides an advantage over SNMPv2c?
• Which line assigns an IP address to the VLAN 40 interface in the sample?
• Which attribute is commonly used by Policy Based Routing to select traffic for routing, such as to a specific VRF or next hop?
• You need to ensure voice traffic sent through an ArubaOS-CX switch arrives with minimal latency. What is the best scheduling technology to use for this task?
• What is a primary benefit of BSS coloring?
• Which QoS concept is described as using access categories based on the IEEE 802.11e QoS standard?
• For devices that do not support 802.1X authentication, which MPSK approach automatically provides unique pre-shared keys for devices?
• If servers in a subnet must be routed to a dedicated router and their SVI is on the core routing switch, which configuration best achieves this routing requirement?
• What is the inter-switch link used to connect two Aruba CX switches in a VSX pair?
• Which VLAN is used for client traffic in the preconfigured design?
• What is the primary purpose of a VRF in routing?
• Which approach should be used to establish the keepalive connection between two Aruba CX 8325 switches for VSX?
• ERSPAN on AOS-CX: which encapsulation protocol is used?
• Which IEEE 802.11 standard uses Round Trip Time measurements and Fine Time Measurements to calculate distance to an AP?
• In the example LAG configuration, which LACP mode is used on the LAG interface?
• Which action may help fix DHCP issues on a pair of Aruba CX switches with APs connected to VLAN 1000?
• Which statement about port-access configuration in the example is accurate for enabling multi-domain with a limit of two devices?
• In the SVI example, which VLAN ID is used for the SVI?
• In the SVI example, which VRF is the VLAN attached to?
• In the linkup delay timer configuration for a VSX environment, which action helps reduce the time before routing adjacencies form?
• After configuration, which default management role should have been assigned for the user?
• To create a new SVI for a separate routing table on Aruba CX 6300 VSF, assuming the correct layer-2 VLAN exists, which action is used?
• Which default AOS-CX user role provides Web UI access to the Logs page and GET-only REST API access for /logs/event?
• In a ClearPass CoA workflow, which step is essential on the switch to enable dynamic authorization?
• How is Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) implemented in an Aruba wireless network?
• In a VRF-enabled Aruba network, what is the primary purpose of a VRF in relation to OSPF routing?
• Which ClearPass component is used to onboard devices and provision credentials or certificates automatically?
• Which LLDP-MED capability enables voice VLANs to be automatically configured for VoIP phones?
• Which app must the office manager use on their phone to onboard new branch devices into Aruba Central?
• An AOS 10 gateway, which device persona is only available when configuring a gateway-only group?
• In a distributed overlay fabric, how would you explain the role of policy enforcement with Group Based Policy ID?
• Which technology should be implemented to keep Wi‑Fi 6 clients connected to the best performing APs when a closer AP has lower performance?
• In the firewall role derivation flow, which step comes immediately after 'Server derived role'?
• Which of the following represents the correct order of the WPA 4-Way Handshake steps?
• What is Aruba-recommended best practice for hardening that only applies to Aruba CX 6300 series switches with dedicated management ports?
• In a VSX pair, what is the purpose of the keepalive link?
• A Microbranch group has APs online in Aruba Central but no VPN tunnels form. The most likely cause is a firewall issue blocking GRE tunneling between the AP and gateway. Which option confirms this?
• Which command configures OSPF as passive on VLAN interfaces 20, 30, and 40?
• In the described deployment, which VLAN is used for wireless client traffic?
• Which statement about the route-map based redistribution of static routes is true when using 'redistribute static route-map connected-routes' with a permit in the route map named 'connected-routes'?
• Which protocol provides authenticated access to retrieve data from a Management Information Base (MIB)?
• Which Aruba stacking technology supports two devices per stack?
• A client connecting to an 802.1X SSID configured in tunnel mode with default AP-group settings sends Access-Accept to the AP through which tunnel after the RADIUS server responds?
• Which QoS concept uses 64 service classes at layer-3 by marking packets?
• Which design consideration would prevent using all four Aruba 7200 Series Gateways and two 7000 Series Gateways in a cluster?
• Which AP models are mentioned for the remote office deployment?
• In AOS 10, which session-based ACL configuration will only allow ping from wired stations to wireless clients but will not allow ping from wireless clients to wired stations?
• Which NetConductor component provides built-in AI-powered client visibility and fingerprinting capability that leverages infrastructure telemetry and ML-based classification models to eliminate network blind spots?
• Which Aruba stacking technology supports up to 10 devices per stack?
• Which technology minimizes flooding for a legacy layer-2 application across a campus connected via layer-3?
• What does the 802.3bz standard describe?
• Which default management role should have been assigned to allow firmware upgrades on an AOS-CX switch?
• What is the antenna gain of AP1?
• In a VSX deployment, which interface commonly acts as the default gateway for VLAN 10?
• In VLAN trunk configuration, what does the native VLAN specify?
• In a VSX environment with multiple VRFs, if you cannot find the IP address of a client device with a known MAC address on the primary switch, which command should you run to locate the IP address across VRFs?
• Which protocol is used to retrieve data stored in a Management Information Base (MIB)?
• What is the difference in dB between AP2 EIRP and AP1 EIRP based on the given data?
• A maximum aggregate ISL bandwidth of 200G is supported by which stacking technology?
• User Based Tunneling (UBT) uses which encapsulation?
• What is the correct order of operation for key management service for a wireless client roaming from AP1 to AP2?